syllogism. I would like to redeem the promissory note regarding a refutation. You
know who you are.
Catechism of the Catholic Church, paragraph 105, states that God is
the author of Sacred Scripture and that the Church “accepts as sacred
and canonical the books of the Old and the New Testaments, whole and
entire, with all their parts” because they were “written under the
inspiration of the Holy Spirit.”
106 states that God inspired the human authors of the sacred books and
that “they consigned to writing whatever he [God] wanted written, and no
107 states the inspired books teach the truth, and that “without error
teach that truth which God, for the sake of our salvation, wish to see
confided to the Sacred Scriptures.”
120 lists the Old Testament Book of Joshua among the sacred books.
121 states that the books of the Old Testament are divinely inspired and
retain a permanent value.
311 states that “God is in no way, directly or indirectly, the cause of
2313 states that in war, non-combatants “must be respected and treated
humanely” and that genocide is a grave moral evil: “the extermination of
a people, nation, or ethnic minority must be condemned as a mortal sin.
One is morally bound to resist orders that command genocide.”
eleventh chapter of the Book of Joshua states that God commanded Moses
to cause the genocide of various non-Israelite peoples.
In summary, the Catholic Church teaches
that the Book of Joshua is divinely inspired, contains all and only what
the human author of Joshua was inspired to write, and teaches truth for
the sake of our salvation.
Presumably, then, even if a book of the
Old Testament was in error about, say, the number of people killed in a
given battle, it could not be in error where it speaks about God’s
relationship to man: on this matter we can count on an Old Testament
book to tell us only the truth.
But in Joshua 11, God specifically
relates to man by telling one group of men to annihilate other groups,
including their noncombatant women and children.
Did God give a command that “one is
morally bound to resist”? Since the command was carried out, does not
that make God at least an indirect cause of a moral evil? Can a coherent
negative answer be given without giving up one or more of propositions